NuttyMoose Posted June 11, 2004 Posted June 11, 2004 Is it possible to have a case function that works between two different tables. Seems easy...I have tried the straight forward method... but it does not seem to work between two different tables. Is this even possible? Thanks Brahim
DanBrill Posted June 11, 2004 Posted June 11, 2004 Yes, that will work. You probably need to think about the context that the statement is being evaluated in, and check the way you have the relationship between the tables structured.
NuttyMoose Posted June 11, 2004 Author Posted June 11, 2004 Thank you... I will keep tring to get it... Let you know Brahim
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